Oral Exam Prep
IFR Oral Exam Questions
48 real instrument rating oral exam questions across all 8 FAA ACS areas, each with a source-cited answer written at the level a DPE expects.
Area I — Preflight Preparation
What aeronautical experience is required to apply for an instrument rating under 14 CFR 61.65(d)?
Under 14 CFR 61.65(d), an applicant for an instrument-airplane rating must log at least 50 hours of cross-country time as PIC (with at least 10 hours in an airplane), 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the required areas, and 15 of those instrument hours with an authorized instrument instructor. The 40-hour instrument requirement must include a 250 nm cross-country under IFR with approaches at each airport using three different types of navigation systems.
Source: 14 CFR 61.65(d)What documents must be current and on board the aircraft for an IFR flight?
The aircraft must have its airworthiness certificate, registration, operating limitations (AFM/POH), and weight-and-balance data on board per 14 CFR 91.9 and 91.203. For IFR flight, the aircraft must also have all IFR-required instruments and equipment operable under 14 CFR 91.205(d). Radio station license (FCC) is required for international flight. The mnemonic AROW covers Airworthiness, Registration, Operating limitations, and Weight-and-balance.
Source: 14 CFR 91.203; 14 CFR 91.9What is the regulatory basis for preflight planning, and what items must you review before an IFR flight?
14 CFR 91.103 requires the PIC to become familiar with all available information concerning a flight before departure. For an IFR flight this includes weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives if the planned flight cannot be completed, and known ATC delays. For flights not in the vicinity of an airport, you must also review runway lengths and takeoff/landing performance data.
Source: 14 CFR 91.103How do you determine whether an alternate airport is required on your IFR flight plan?
Per 14 CFR 91.169(b), no alternate is required if the destination airport has a published instrument approach procedure and weather forecasts indicate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA, a ceiling of at least 2,000 feet above airport elevation and visibility of at least 3 statute miles. If either threshold is not met, you must file an alternate airport on the IFR flight plan.
Source: 14 CFR 91.169(b)What weather minimums must a designated alternate airport meet for IFR planning purposes?
Per 14 CFR 91.169(c), if the alternate has a precision approach, forecast weather must be at least 600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. If the alternate has only a nonprecision approach, minimums are 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. If the alternate has no published procedure, weather must allow descent from the MEA and landing under basic VFR conditions.
Source: 14 CFR 91.169(c)How much fuel must you carry for an IFR flight that requires an alternate airport?
14 CFR 91.167(a) requires fuel to: (1) reach the destination airport, (2) fly from the destination to the alternate airport, and (3) fly for 45 additional minutes at normal cruising speed after reaching the alternate. Helicopters substitute 30 minutes for the final reserve. These legs are additive — all three must be satisfied from the point of departure.
Source: 14 CFR 91.167(a)What is the difference between 14 CFR 91.167 and 14 CFR 91.169?
14 CFR 91.167 governs fuel quantity — how much fuel you must carry for an IFR flight, including when alternate fuel is required. 14 CFR 91.169 governs the IFR flight plan — when an alternate airport must be listed and what weather minimums that airport must meet for planning purposes. Both rules use nearly identical exception language, so if the 91.167(b) exception applies, the 91.169(b) exception also applies.
Source: 14 CFR 91.167; 14 CFR 91.169What are the supplemental oxygen requirements for crew members operating under IFR per 14 CFR 91.211?
14 CFR 91.211(a) sets three altitude thresholds: above 12,500 ft MSL up to and including 14,000 ft MSL, the required flight crew must use supplemental oxygen for any portion of the flight exceeding 30 minutes at those altitudes. Above 14,000 ft MSL, the required crew must use oxygen for the entire time at those altitudes. Above 15,000 ft MSL, each occupant of the aircraft must be provided supplemental oxygen.
Source: 14 CFR 91.211(a)Area II — Preflight Procedures
What instruments and equipment are required for IFR flight under 14 CFR 91.205(d)?
14 CFR 91.205(d) requires for IFR operations (in addition to VFR day and night equipment): two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route, a gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, slip-skid indicator, sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure, a clock with sweep-second pointer or digital display, a generator or alternator of adequate capacity, a gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator (artificial horizon), and a gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent). Above FL240, DME or an approved RNAV system is also required.
Source: 14 CFR 91.205(d)What is the VOR equipment check requirement for IFR flight, and what tolerances apply?
14 CFR 91.171 requires the VOR system to be checked within the preceding 30 days before any IFR operation using VOR. The maximum permissible bearing error is ±4 degrees for ground-based checks (using FAA test signals, designated surface checkpoints, or dual-VOR comparison) and ±6 degrees for designated airborne checkpoints. Each check must be logged with the date, place, bearing error, and the pilot's signature.
Source: 14 CFR 91.171What must a pilot log after completing a VOR equipment check, and where is that record kept?
14 CFR 91.171(c)(1) requires the pilot to enter the date, place, bearing error observed, and their signature in the aircraft log or other record. The log entry must be made for every check method — whether the check was performed using an FAA VOR test signal, a designated checkpoint, a dual-VOR comparison, or an airborne checkpoint. This record must be available during any subsequent IFR flight using that VOR.
Source: 14 CFR 91.171(c)(1)What is the purpose of the instrument cockpit check before an IFR flight, and what items does it typically cover?
The instrument cockpit check (ACS Task IR.II.C) verifies that all IFR-required instruments and navigation equipment are operational and correctly set before entering IMC. A typical check confirms the altimeter setting and accuracy (within ±75 feet of airport elevation), the heading indicator is erect and aligned with the compass, the attitude indicator is erect and stable, nav radios are set and identified, the clock is running, and all required avionics are functional. The FAA Instrument Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-15B) Ch. 5 describes this systematic check.
Source: FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 5; ACS IR.II.CHow does an inoperative instrument or piece of navigation equipment affect the legality of an IFR flight?
A required IFR instrument or piece of equipment that is inoperative makes the aircraft unairworthy for IFR unless the deficiency is resolved under 14 CFR 91.213 (inoperative instruments and equipment). The pilot must determine whether the item is required by 14 CFR 91.205(d), the aircraft's minimum equipment list (MEL), or the approved type certificate data sheet. If required and no MEL exists, the aircraft may not be flown IFR until the item is repaired.
Source: 14 CFR 91.213; 14 CFR 91.205(d)What makes a GPS or RNAV system legally usable for an IFR instrument approach?
A GPS/RNAV system used for an IFR approach must be approved for instrument flight per the system's FAA approval (TSO-C129, TSO-C145, or TSO-C146), the approach procedure must be loaded from a current database, RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) must be available or WAAS integrity must be confirmed, and the approach must be flown per the applicable AIM guidance (AIM 1-1-18). Portable or non-approved GPS may not be used as a primary IFR navigation source.
Source: AIM 1-1-18; TSO-C145/C146Area III — ATC Clearances and Procedures
Which side is the protected (safe) side of a holding pattern?
The protected side of a holding pattern is the holding side — the inside of the racetrack, on the right side for a standard right-hand pattern. Obstacle and terrain clearance is guaranteed only within the protected airspace, which is defined by the holding fix, the inbound course, and the standard turn radius. The non-holding side receives no protected-area guarantee. Per AIM 5-3-7, always remain on the holding side to stay within the protected airspace.
Source: AIM 5-3-7When does holding timing begin on the inbound versus outbound leg?
Per AIM 5-3-7, timing on the outbound leg begins when you are abeam the holding fix (or wings level after the outbound turn if the fix cannot be identified abeam). On the inbound leg, timing begins when you roll wings level on the inbound course. The inbound leg target is 1 minute at or below 14,000 ft MSL, or 1.5 minutes above 14,000 ft MSL. Outbound timing is adjusted after the first circuit to achieve the target inbound leg duration.
Source: AIM 5-3-7What are the maximum holding airspeeds by altitude per the AIM?
AIM 5-3-7 establishes three speed limits for holding patterns: at or below 6,000 ft MSL — 200 KIAS maximum; 6,001 ft through 14,000 ft MSL — 230 KIAS maximum; above 14,000 ft MSL — 265 KIAS maximum. These are maximums — always comply with any lower speed restriction charted on the published holding pattern. The DPE will ask you to state all three thresholds during the oral portion.
Source: AIM 5-3-7What must a standard ATC holding clearance contain, and what must you read back?
A standard ATC holding clearance per AIM 5-3-7 contains: the holding fix, the direction to hold (e.g., 'hold northeast'), the inbound course or radial, turn direction if non-standard (left turns), and any leg length or airspeed restriction. You must read back all of these elements. If ATC does not provide an Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time, request one — it is mandatory and governs your actions if you lose radio communications while holding.
Source: AIM 5-3-7; 14 CFR 91.185What are the mandatory IFR position report items for operations in non-radar airspace?
14 CFR 91.183 and AIM 5-3-2 require position reports at each designated reporting point to include: (1) aircraft identification, (2) position, (3) time, (4) altitude or flight level, (5) type of flight plan (IFR), (6) ETA and name of the next reporting point, and (7) name only of the following fix. Pertinent remarks such as holding, missed approach, or any deviation from the flight plan are also required. In radar contact, ATC may waive position reports unless specifically requested.
Source: 14 CFR 91.183; AIM 5-3-2What must you do under 14 CFR 91.185 if you experience two-way radio communications failure while in IFR conditions?
Under 14 CFR 91.185, maintain the highest of: (a) the last assigned altitude, (b) the minimum IFR altitude, or (c) the altitude ATC advised to expect. For routing, follow the assigned route, then expected routing, then filed routing (AVE-F mnemonic). Leave the clearance limit at the EFC time or ETA and commence the approach. Squawk 7600 throughout. Attempt to re-establish communications on all available frequencies including 121.5 MHz.
Source: 14 CFR 91.185Area IV — Flight by Reference to Instruments
What are the ACS performance tolerances for straight-and-level instrument flight during the checkride?
The FAA Instrument Rating ACS (FAA-S-ACS-8C) requires maintaining assigned altitude within ±100 feet, heading within ±10 degrees, and airspeed within ±10 KIAS during basic instrument flight maneuvers. For precision approaches, tolerances tighten to ±100 feet above DA and tracking within ¾ scale CDI deflection on final approach. These tolerances define the standard the DPE uses to evaluate every phase of the flight portion.
Source: FAA-S-ACS-8C (ACS IR.IV.A)What is the scan technique recommended by the Instrument Flying Handbook for maintaining aircraft control by reference to instruments?
The FAA Instrument Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-15B) Chapter 3 describes the control-and-performance scan: use the attitude indicator as the primary control reference and cross-check it continuously with performance instruments (altimeter, airspeed, VSI, turn coordinator, heading indicator). The Instrument Flying Handbook also covers the selective radial scan and emphasizes that no single instrument should be fixated on — a proper scan distributes attention to detect deviations early before they compound.
Source: FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 3What are the three types of unusual attitudes, and what is the recovery technique for a nose-high unusual attitude?
ACS Task IR.IV.B covers recovery from both nose-high and nose-low unusual attitudes. For a nose-high attitude (indicated by increasing altitude, decreasing airspeed, and a high pitch bar on the attitude indicator): simultaneously add power, lower the nose to level, and roll wings level. For nose-low (decreasing altitude, increasing airspeed): reduce power, roll wings level, then raise the nose to level — the order prevents over-stressing the airframe. Per FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 5, recovery actions are initiated simultaneously for nose-high, but roll before pull for nose-low.
Source: FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 5; ACS IR.IV.BWhat heading tolerance applies to timed turns and turns to headings under the ACS?
ACS Task IR.IV.A specifies that all turns to assigned headings must be completed within ±10 degrees of the target heading. For timed turns (used when the directional gyro is unavailable), the pilot uses the turn coordinator and clock to achieve a specific number of degrees of turn, with the same ±10 degree completion tolerance. The FAA Instrument Flying Handbook (FAA-H-8083-15B) Ch. 3 notes that a standard-rate turn of 3 degrees per second requires 30 seconds to turn 90 degrees.
Source: ACS IR.IV.A; FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 3What IFR cruising altitude rules apply when operating in uncontrolled airspace under IFR?
14 CFR 91.179 requires specific altitude assignments in uncontrolled airspace under IFR based on magnetic course. Below 18,000 ft MSL: odd thousands for magnetic courses 0–179° (eastbound), even thousands for 180–359° (westbound). Above 18,000 ft MSL to FL290: odd flight levels eastbound, even flight levels westbound. Above FL290 RVSM: 2,000 ft separation on odd (east) and even (west) levels. In controlled airspace, you fly the ATC-assigned altitude.
Source: 14 CFR 91.179Area V — Navigation Systems
What is the difference between MEA and MOCA, and when can you fly below the MEA?
The MEA (Minimum En Route Altitude) guarantees both obstacle clearance and navigation signal reception for the entire route segment. The MOCA (Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude) guarantees the same obstacle clearance but only guarantees VOR signal reception within 22 nautical miles of the VOR. Per 14 CFR 91.177, you may descend to the MOCA only if ATC clears you to that altitude and you are within 22 nm of the VOR; below MEA and more than 22 nm from the VOR, nav signal may be unreliable.
Source: 14 CFR 91.177; AIM 5-3-3What is a DME arc approach, and what is the standard interception technique?
A DME arc approach uses a constant-distance arc from a VORTAC or VORDME to position the aircraft on final approach. ACS Task IR.V.A evaluates the pilot's ability to intercept and track the arc. The standard technique per FAA-H-8083-16B is to lead the turn onto the arc by approximately 0.5 nm, then use small heading adjustments — typically 10-degree turns every time the CDI needle deflects one dot — to maintain the arc distance. DME readout should remain within ±0.5 nm of the published arc radius.
Source: FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4; ACS IR.V.AWhat are the mandatory IFR position reports, and when are they required?
Per 14 CFR 91.183 and AIM 5-3-2, position reports are required when operating IFR in non-radar airspace at each designated compulsory reporting point (shown on charts with a solid triangle symbol). Each report must include: aircraft identification, position, time, altitude, type of flight plan, ETA at the next compulsory reporting point, name of the following compulsory fix, and any pertinent remarks. In radar contact, ATC may waive these reports — but you must report when leaving any assigned holding fix and any other points ATC requests.
Source: 14 CFR 91.183; AIM 5-3-2What does a 'climb via SID' clearance require, and how does it differ from a simple altitude assignment?
Per AIM 5-2-8, 'climb via SID' requires compliance with the SID's lateral path, all published altitude restrictions at each fix (at/above, at/below, or at exactly as charted), and all published speed restrictions. You may not level off between fix restrictions. A plain altitude assignment (e.g., 'Cleared to 10,000') only assigns that altitude — intermediate SID fix restrictions are not mandatory unless 'climb via' is included. The difference has direct safety implications for obstacle clearance on departure.
Source: AIM 5-2-8What minimum IFR altitude must you maintain when no published MEA exists for the route?
14 CFR 91.177(b) establishes the pilot's own minimum IFR altitude when no MEA, MOCA, or other prescribed altitude exists: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles of the course in non-mountainous areas, and 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles in designated mountainous areas. This rule applies only when no published minimum altitude governs — if an MEA exists, it takes precedence and is the applicable minimum.
Source: 14 CFR 91.177(b)What is RAIM, and what happens if RAIM is unavailable during an RNAV approach?
RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) is an internal GPS process that checks the consistency of GPS satellite signals to detect faults. Per AIM 1-1-18, if RAIM is not available at the final approach fix (FAF), a non-WAAS GPS approach must not be conducted — the pilot must revert to an alternative approach or declare inability to proceed. WAAS-equipped receivers use a different integrity check (SBAS) that functions independently of RAIM, so a WAAS LPV approach may be available even when RAIM is predicted unavailable for non-WAAS operations.
Source: AIM 1-1-18Area VI — Instrument Approach Procedures
What visual references allow you to descend below DA or MDA on an instrument approach under 14 CFR 91.175?
14 CFR 91.175(c) requires that at least one of the following be distinctly visible and identifiable before descending below DA or MDA: the approach light system (but you may not descend below 100 feet above the TDZE using approach lights alone unless you can also see red terminating bars or red side row bars), threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, runway end identifier lights, visual glideslope indicator, touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings, touchdown zone lights, runway, runway markings, or runway lights.
Source: 14 CFR 91.175(c)When are you required to execute a missed approach under 14 CFR 91.175?
14 CFR 91.175(e) requires immediate execution of a missed approach when: (1) you arrive at the missed approach point (or DA/DH) and the required visual references are not established, or (2) the required visual references are subsequently lost after passing DA/DH or while flying at or below MDA. The regulation does not permit continued descent on hope of acquiring the runway — if the required visual references per 91.175(c) are not met at the decision point, you must go missed immediately.
Source: 14 CFR 91.175(e)What is the difference between Decision Altitude (DA) and Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?
A Decision Altitude (DA) is used on precision approaches and approach procedures with vertical guidance (ILS, LPV). At DA you must have the required visual references or immediately execute a missed approach — you cannot continue descending to look. A Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) is used on nonprecision approaches; the pilot descends to MDA and flies level until the missed approach point. Per 14 CFR 1.1, DA replaces the older term Decision Height (DH); both are MSL-referenced altitudes.
Source: 14 CFR 1.1; FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4What are the ACS skill tolerances for a precision ILS approach?
The FAA Instrument Rating ACS (FAA-S-ACS-8C) for an ILS approach (Task IR.VI.B) requires: localizer tracking within ¾ scale CDI deflection, glide slope tracking within ¾ scale deflection, altitude above DA within +100/-0 feet (no busting DA downward), airspeed within ±10 KIAS of approach speed, and correct visual reference identification before descending below DA. Any full-scale localizer or glide slope deflection during the final approach segment constitutes an unsatisfactory performance.
Source: FAA-S-ACS-8C (ACS IR.VI.B)What is a circling approach, and what are the general area protection radii by aircraft category?
A circling approach (ACS Task IR.VI.D) is flown when the final approach course is not aligned within 30 degrees of the runway, or when a straight-in landing is not practicable. The pilot descends to the circling MDA and maneuvers visually to the landing runway. Per FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4, the protected area radius for circling varies by aircraft approach category: Category A 1.3 nm, Category B 1.5 nm, Category C 1.7 nm, Category D 2.3 nm, Category E 4.5 nm — measured from each runway threshold. You must not exceed the standard circling approach speed for your category.
Source: FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4; ACS IR.VI.DWhat does the missed approach procedure require, and when must it be initiated on a precision approach?
ACS Task IR.VI.C requires the pilot to execute the published missed approach procedure immediately upon reaching DA if the required visual references are not established, per 14 CFR 91.175(e). The missed approach point for a precision approach is DA. The procedure is always published on the approach chart; a pilot may not elect a different missed approach routing unless ATC provides alternate instructions. The DPE evaluates whether you initiate missed approach at DA — not below it — and track the published missed approach course.
Source: 14 CFR 91.175(e); ACS IR.VI.CWhat is the significance of the Visual Descent Point (VDP) on a nonprecision approach?
The VDP is a defined point on the final approach course from which a normal 3-degree descent from MDA will reach the runway touchdown zone. Per FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4, the VDP is charted where obstacle clearance and approach geometry permit — not all nonprecision approaches have a VDP. If you pass the VDP without acquiring the required visual references per 14 CFR 91.175(c), you should plan to execute the missed approach at the published MAP rather than continue a steep descent attempt.
Source: FAA-H-8083-16B Ch. 4; 14 CFR 91.175(c)Area VII — Emergency Operations
What altitude must you maintain after a two-way radio communications failure under 14 CFR 91.185?
14 CFR 91.185(c)(2) requires you to fly the highest of: (a) the last assigned altitude, (b) the minimum IFR altitude applicable to your route segment, or (c) the altitude ATC advised to expect in a further clearance. The altitude rule is designed to prevent you from descending into an unsafe altitude — you always take the most protective of the three options for each route segment being flown.
Source: 14 CFR 91.185(c)(2)Do Beechcraft Barons have a critical engine?
Yes. The Beechcraft Baron 55/58, like most conventional-rotation twins (propellers turning clockwise viewed from the cockpit), has a critical engine — the left engine. When the left engine fails, the right engine's P-factor, torque, accelerated slipstream, and spiraling slipstream effects combine to produce the greatest yawing and rolling moment toward the dead engine, leaving the least rudder authority. Per FAA-H-8083-3C Chapter 13, the critical engine is the one whose failure most adversely affects the aircraft's performance and handling.
Source: FAA-H-8083-3C Ch. 13What are the four asymmetric thrust factors that determine which engine is critical on a conventional twin?
FAA-H-8083-3C Chapter 13 identifies four factors: (1) P-factor — the descending blade of a propeller produces more thrust at high angles of attack, shifting the thrust line to the right on each engine; on the left engine, this shifts thrust further from the aircraft centerline; (2) Torque — engine torque rolls the aircraft toward the dead engine; (3) Accelerated slipstream — the operating engine's prop wash increases lift and drag asymmetrically; (4) Spiraling slipstream — the corkscrew airflow from the right engine strikes the vertical tail, aiding directional control; loss of this effect when the right engine fails reduces yaw authority.
Source: FAA-H-8083-3C Ch. 13What is the procedure for loss of primary flight instruments (partial panel) under IFR?
ACS Task IR.VII.C (loss of primary flight instruments) requires the pilot to maintain control using remaining instruments. If the attitude indicator fails, use the turn coordinator, airspeed, altimeter, and VSI to maintain controlled flight. Per FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 5, the fundamental technique is: wings level (ball centered, turn coordinator shows no turn), maintain altitude on the altimeter with VSI confirmation, and use airspeed to detect pitch trend. The DPE may evaluate climbs, descents, and turns using only partial panel instrumentation.
Source: FAA-H-8083-15B Ch. 5; ACS IR.VII.CWhat actions are required if you experience an equipment malfunction while operating IFR in controlled airspace?
14 CFR 91.187 requires the PIC to report any malfunction of navigational, approach, or communication equipment to ATC as soon as practical. The report must include: aircraft identification, equipment affected, the degree to which the pilot's ability to operate IFR is impaired, and the nature and extent of assistance desired. Squawking 7600 (radio failure) or 7700 (general emergency) may also be appropriate depending on severity. Declare an emergency under 14 CFR 91.3 if the malfunction creates an emergency situation.
Source: 14 CFR 91.187; 14 CFR 91.3Area VIII — Postflight Procedures
What postflight instrument and equipment checks are required after an IFR flight?
ACS Task IR.VIII.A covers postflight checking of instruments and equipment. After an IFR flight, the PIC should verify any equipment discrepancies that arose during flight and enter them in the aircraft logbook or maintenance record per 14 CFR 91.405 (maintenance responsibilities) and 14 CFR 91.417 (maintenance record requirements). Any inoperative IFR-required equipment discovered during the flight must be addressed before the next IFR operation — deferral requires an approved MEL under 14 CFR 91.213.
Source: 14 CFR 91.405; 14 CFR 91.417; ACS IR.VIII.AWhat logbook entries are required after an IFR flight, and what experience must be credited specifically as instrument time?
14 CFR 61.51(b) requires logging of flight time, conditions of flight, and the aircraft make, model, and identification. Instrument time must be logged when actual or simulated IMC is encountered per 14 CFR 61.51(g) — the pilot records the time, the conditions (actual or simulated), and, for simulated instrument flight, the name of the safety pilot. Approaches must be logged with the type and name of each approach, and the location (airport) per 14 CFR 61.51(g)(2).
Source: 14 CFR 61.51(b); 14 CFR 61.51(g)What are the IFR currency requirements to act as PIC under IFR, and how do you restore currency if you are not current?
14 CFR 61.57(c) requires the pilot to have performed, within the preceding 6 calendar months, at least 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems. These may be performed in actual IMC, a flight simulator, or a flight training device. If not current at the 6-month mark, the pilot has an additional 6 months to restore currency with another instrument-current PIC safety pilot on board. After 12 months without the experience, an instrument proficiency check (IPC) with a CFII or DPE is required.
Source: 14 CFR 61.57(c)How long must aircraft maintenance records be retained, and what does 14 CFR 91.417 require?
14 CFR 91.417(b) requires aircraft owners or operators to retain: (1) records of the current status of life-limited parts for the life of the aircraft; (2) records of current inspection status, including the time since last required inspection, for at least 1 year after the inspection; and (3) the current status of applicable airworthiness directives (ADs) and required inspection intervals for at least 1 year after the action. Total time in service records must be retained for the life of the aircraft.
Source: 14 CFR 91.417(b)What must a pilot-in-command do after deviating from an ATC clearance or ATC instruction under IFR?
14 CFR 91.123(b) requires that whenever a pilot deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system (TCAS/ACAS) resolution advisory, the pilot must notify ATC as soon as practicable. Under 14 CFR 91.3(b), when the PIC deviates from a rule during an emergency, ATC must be notified of the deviation, and a written report must be filed with the FAA if ATC requests it.
Source: 14 CFR 91.3(b); 14 CFR 91.123(b)Practice with an AI DPE — free
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